المجلس التمريضي الأردني

Q1) Which of the following is considered the most accurate way to assess fetal growth during pregnancy?

A. Measuring the fundal height using a measuring tape B. Measuring the fundal height using the examiner's fingers C. Using abdominal ultrasound D. Inspecting the woman's abdomen and estimating its size

Q2) Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?

A. Amenorrhea B. Nausea and Vomiting C. Visualization of fetal sac D. Early breast change

Q3) A woman in her 18th week of pregnancy, classified as low-risk, visits the obstetrics clinic for a follow-up. When will the midwife schedule her next appointment?

A. After one week. B. After two weeks. C. After four weeks. D. After one trimester.

Q4) Which of the following is routinely checked at every antenatal visit?

A. Blood group & Rh B. Maternal height C. Blood Pressure D. Pelvic X-ray

Q5) Which of the following statements is accurate description of Quickening?

A. The first fetal movement felt by the midwife B. The first fetal movement seen by the doctor on Ultrasound C. The first fetal movement felt by a mother D. The first fetal movement is seen between weeks 10 and 12 of gestation

Q6) The midwife, who assessed the fundal height during the abdominal examination, reported that the fundus was at 22 weeks of gestation. Where did she likely find the fundus?

A. At level of xiphisternum B. At the level of the umbilicus C. At the level of the pubic bone D. Cannot be detected abdominally, still pelvic organ

Q7) Which of the following signs observed during the examination of the lower extremity is considered a physiological change during pregnancy?

A. Asymmetry in the legs B. Reddened area on the calf C. Mild edema in both ankles D. Pain in the right foot

Q8) Lateral palpation in the abdominal exam during pregnancy is used to determine which of the following?

A. Fetal lie B. Fetal engagement C. Fetal heartbeat location D. Fetal denominator

Q9) What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a pregnant woman with a normal Body Mass Index (BMI)?

A. 12.5-18 kg B. 5-9 kg C. 11.5-16 kg D. No limit for weight gain

Q10) Which of the following is a physiological change that occurs in the cardiovascular system during pregnancy?

A. Increase vascular resistance B. Decrease cardiac output C. Enlargement of the heart D. Decrease heart rate

Q11) At what gestational age should a woman undergo an ultrasound examination to detect fetal abnormalities?

A. 10-12 weeks of gestation B. 36-40 weeks of gestation C. 18-20 weeks of gestation D. 24-26 weeks of gestation

Q12) Which of the following symptoms is considered a physiological change during pregnancy?

A. Blurred vision B. Severe Headache C. Nausea and vomiting in the morning D. Vaginal spotting in late pregnancy

Q13) Which of the following is the best advice a midwife should give to a pregnant woman at 35 weeks of gestation?

A. Start doing heavy exercise daily to prepare for labor B. Increase intake of sugary foods to increase energy for delivery C. Avoid lying flat on your back to prevent hypotension D. Begin expressing breast milk to stimulate labor contractions

Q14) Which of the following supplements is recommended for all women during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A. Vitamin C B. Iron C. Folic acid D. Vitamin A

Q15) Which of the following statements best defines fetal position?

A. The part of fetus which lie in the pelvic brim B. The relationship between fetal head and trunk C. The relationship between a part of the fetus and the six points of the maternal pelvic brim D. The relationship between the long axis of the fetus and the long axis of the uterus

Q16) During initial physical assessment for a newly diagnosed pregnant mother, which of the following data indicated that this mother was categorized as a "High-Risk Pregnancy"?

A. She is 24 years old B. Blood pressure is 108/70 mm Hg C. A body mass index of 17 kg/m² D. Her hemoglobin level is 13.8 g/dL

Q17) During midwifery care for a pregnant woman who is admitted with Hyperemesis Gravidarum. What potential complication may arise from this condition?

A. Miscarriage B. Electrolyte imbalance C. Bowel perforation D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension

Q18) At the emergency department, the midwife received a 32-week pregnant woman with severe abdominal pain, active vaginal bleeding, and a tense, board-like abdomen. Which of the following is the priority of midwifery intervention?

A. Prepare the woman for an emergency Cesarean Section B. Assess maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate C. Start an intravenous infusion of oxytocin D. Administer pain medication as prescribed

Q19) What is the priority midwifery intervention during the routine antenatal visit for pregnant woman diagnosed with mild preeclampsia?

A. Instruct the woman on the importance of monitoring fetal movement B. Instruct the woman to maintain complete bed rest C. Apply a daily checkup for the maternal blood glucose D. Instruct the woman to restrict dietary sodium and any food items that contain sodium.

Q20) What is the first intervention by the midwife for a pregnant woman with Eclampsia who suddenly develops seizures?

A. Administer high-flow oxygen by facemask B. Administer a loading dosage of Magnesium Sulfate intravenously C. Maintain a clear and open airway D. Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart during the seizure.

Q21) A 34 weeks pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetic mellitus. Which dietary advice should the midwife prioritize for the woman?

A. High-sugar snacks to maintain energy levels B. High-fat, low-carbohydrate ketogenic diet C. Unlimited fruit juice consumption for hydration D. Small, frequent meals with balanced carbohydrates, fiber, and protein

Q22) What is the most significant fetal complication related to uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus?

A. Fetal hypoglycemia B. Fetal Macrosomia C. Fetal Microcosmic D. Early Lung Maturation

Q23) Which teaching should be emphasized for Diabetic woman who became pregnant and attending her first prenatal visit?

A. The need to eat 600 more calories/day B. Continue with the same diet as before pregnancy C. Diet and insulin need to be adjusted during pregnancy D. Plan diet based on the results of urine glucose testing

Q24) A woman with severe anemia in pregnancy is at increased risk for:

A. Multiple pregnancy B. Postpartum depression C. Preterm birth and low birth weight D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Q25) At the maternal emergency ward, midwives received a 32-week pregnant woman after car accident. The woman doesn't have abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding, her vital signs are stable, and Fetal heart rate is 145 beats/minute with variability. What is the midwife's priority?

A. Monitoring the woman for internal bleeding B. Discharge the woman to home C. Monitoring the mother's vital signs for 24 hours D. Apply a continuous electrical fetal monitor for at least 4 hours

Q26) What differentiate Placenta Previa from Abruptio Placenta?

A. Characteristic of vaginal bleeding B. Rupture of amniotic membranes C. Acute abdominal pain D. Maternal hypotension

Q27) What is the priority midwifery intervention for a pregnant woman with incomplete abortion?

A. Administer Methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.2 mg Intramuscular B. Ensure an intravenous line for fluid replacement C. Preoperative education for surgery D. Check the woman’s blood group

Q28) What should be included in the educational session for a pregnant mother diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia and taking iron supplements?

A. Drink a glass of milk with iron supplement for more absorption B. Take iron supplement at bedtime C. Take iron supplement on empty stomach D. Take iron supplement with a calcium-rich food

Q29) Which of the following indicates a non-reassuring result for non-stress test?

A. No decelerations after three consecutive mild contractions B. Early decelerations with regular uterine contractions C. Fetal heart rate with a 175 beats per minute baseline D. No accelerations for 15 minutes of the test

Q30) A woman with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

A. Increased deep tendon reflexes B. Blood pressure 150/90 mmHg C. Absent deep tendon reflexes and respiratory depression D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr

Q31) The midwife has received a report regarding the woman in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. What is the interpretation of this assessment?

A. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines B. The cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines C. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines D. The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines

Q32) During the first stage of labor, what is the most accurate assessment method to monitor the progress of labor?

A. Maternal pain level B. Frequency of contractions C. Vaginal examination D. External fetal monitoring

Q33) A woman is currently in labor and has a dilation of 2 cm. The uterine contractions occur every 6 minutes, lasting for 30 seconds each, and are of moderate intensity. She is experiencing back pain and can converse during the contractions. The midwife should identify this as which phase/stage of labor?

A. Early latent phase B. Active phase C. Transition phase D. Second stage

Q34) During the second stage of labor, what signs in the perineum indicate that the baby is about to be born?

A. Increase in meconium-stained fluid and retracting perineum B. Retracting perineum and anus with an increase of bloody show C. Rapid and intense contractions D. Bulging perineum and rectum with an increase in bloody show

Q35) What is the main purpose of conducting perineal massage during the second stage of labor?

A. Reduce uterine contractions B. Speed up the labor process C. Reduce perineal trauma D. Assist with shoulder delivery

Q36) During the second stage of labor, how does the midwife confirm that the delivery of the fetal head has started?

A. Rupture of membranes B. Appearance of the fetal head at the introitus C. Onset of contractions D. Internal rotation of fetal head

Q37) A 32-year-old pregnant woman in the second stage of labor, has been pushing for more than an hour with only slight fetal descent. She is positioned in lithotomy. The fetus is positioned head down, and there are no indicators of distress. What is the appropriate intervention?

A. Carry out a cesarean section B. Shift the woman to an upright or squatting position C. Initiate fundal pressure D. Administer intravenous oxytocin without delay

Q38) What is correct regarding fetal heart rate assessment during the pushing in the second stage of labor?

A. Monitoring the fetal heart rate in between contractions only B. Checking the fetal heart rate right after each contraction C. No need to assess the fetal heart rate during the second stage of labor D. Checking the fetal heart rate right after a contraction and every 5 minutes

Q39) Which of the following findings DO NOT support the diagnosis of placenta separation?

A. The umbilical cord appears to lengthen B. The fundus of the uterus shifts from below to above the umbilicus C. There is a sudden release of blood from the vagina D. Onset of placental expulsion and delivery starts after 30 minutes of fetal delivery

Q40) What is considered a component of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labor?

A. Administering an Oxytocic medication immediately after baby’s birth B. Use force while pulling on the umbilical cord C. Releasing pressure on the umbilical cord while elevating the uterus D. Do not rub the fundus to ensure the uterus is not contracted

Q41) What is the appropriate midwife intervention to assess the woman who delivered the baby and placenta recently?

A. Vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour B. Vital signs every 30 minutes for the first hour C. Blood pressure every 15 minutes for the first hour D. Temperature every 15 minutes and pulse every 45 minutes

Q42) What is the rational for assessing the uterus frequency after delivery?

A. To monitor any possible complications B. To check the position, dimensions, and firmness of the cervix C. To reassure the women that her baby is fine D. To empty bladder and avoid urinary tract infection

Q43) A multigravida woman, at 38 weeks' gestation, is admitted with painless, bright red bleeding and 2 mild contractions every 7 to 10 minutes. Which of the following assessments takes priority in determining labor progress?

A. Per vaginal examination B. Contraction monitoring C. Fetal heart rate monitoring D. Maternal vital signs

Q44) Which of the following responses best demonstrates the midwife’s understanding of a woman’s immediate needs when Premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM) occurs?

A. The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the onset of labor B. PROM is associated with malpresentation and possibly incompetent cervix C. PROM decrease the fetus's defense against infection D. Provided care based on fetal viability and gestational age

Q45) Which of the following is a side effect of oxytocin during labor induction?

A. Weak prolonged contraction for more than 70 seconds B. Increased restlessness and anxiety C. Increased bright red vaginal bleeding D. Prolonged tetanic contractions for more than 90 seconds

Q46) A midwife is reading a monitor tracing of a woman whose labor is being induced with a Pitocin infusion. Late deceleration patterns are observed. The woman is lying on her side, and her vital signs are stable. Contractions last 90 seconds and happen every 1:30 to 2 minutes. What is the midwife's first action?

A. Stop the Pitocin B. Change the woman's position C. Elevate the woman's legs D. Administer oxygen via facemask at10 litters/minute

Q47) A 42-week pregnant woman with ruptured amniotic membranes, and prolapsed umbilical cord. What would be the midwife’s priority intervention?

A. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position B. Cover the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline C. Preparing the woman for a cesarean section D. Starting oxygen with a facemask

Q48) A midwife caring for a woman at 32 weeks' gestation with painless vaginal bleeding. What is the midwife's care priority?

A. Perform vaginal exam B. Monitor fetal heart tone C. Place the woman in Trendelenburg position D. Assess vital signs

Q49) A woman with a history of previous cesarean section is in labor. She complains of severe abdominal pain and has sudden stop of contractions. What is the midwife priority action?

A. Check cervical dilation B. Notify the physician immediately C. Reposition the woman D. Administer IV fluids

Q50) A woman delivers the placenta, but the uterus is soft and bleeding heavily. What is the midwife’s immediate action?

A. Apply cold compress to the perineum B. Massage the uterus to promote contraction C. Offer the client fluids D. Start antibiotics

Q51) A midwife is providing care for a woman during labor process. The baby's head is delivered, but the shoulders are stuck. What is the midwife's immediate action?

A. Encourage maternal pushing B. Apply fundal pressure C. Massage the fundus D. Flex the woman’s legs to her abdomen

Q52) A woman with gestational diabetes is admitted to the labor ward at 39 weeks of gestation. Which midwife’s intervention takes priority?

A. Administer insulin based on glucose sliding scale B. Restrict oral fluids C. Monitor blood glucose hourly D. Insert a urinary catheter

Q53) The midwife is caring for a primigravida woman having preterm labor at 29 weeks’ gestation. Which medication prescription by the physician would the midwife anticipate?

A. Oxytocin B. Misoprostol C. Carboprost D. Betamethasone

Q54) Which of the following would be detected during Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring in if umbilical cord compression is present?

A. Variable decelerations B. Early decelerations C. Late decelerations D. Short term variability

Q55) While assessing a postpartum woman, the midwife palpates a contracted uterus. Perineal inspection reveals a steady stream of bright-red blood dropping out of the vagina. The woman reports mild perineal pain. Which of the following would the midwife suspect?

A. Uterine atony B. Hematoma C. Laceration D. Retained placenta

Q56) A postpartum woman is experiencing sub-involution. What factors in the woman's history might contribute to this condition?

A. Early ambulation B. Breastfeeding C. Uterine infection D. A complication-free labor and birth process

Q57) A woman gave birth vaginally approximately 12 hours ago and her temperature is now 38.4 C. Which action would be most appropriate for the midwife?

A. Continue monitoring the woman's temperature every 4 hours; this finding is normal B. Notify the physician about this elevation; this finding reflects infection C. Inspect the perineum for hematoma formation D. Obtain a urine culture; the woman most likely has a urinary tract infection

Q58) A woman, who is 12 hours post-delivery and had an episiotomy, is now complaining of perineal pain. The assessment reveals no signs of infection. Which of the following measures could the midwife offer?

A. A sitz bath B. A heating pad is applied to the perineum C. Narcotic pain medication D. An ice pack is applied to the perineum

Q59) A midwife is assessing a woman who gave birth to her first baby 5 days ago. Which of the following is a normal finding?

A. Cream-colored lochia; uterus above the umbilicus B. Bright-red lochia with clots; uterus 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus C. Light pink or brown lochia; uterus 4 to 5 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus D. Yellow, mucous lochia; uterus at the level of the umbilicus

Q60) A midwife assesses a postpartum woman for Thromboembolism, based on the understanding that the risk is increased because of which of the following?

A. Increased white blood cell count B. Pooling and stasis of blood in the lower limbs C. Decrease in coagulation factors D. Episiotomy

Q61) Which of the following would lead the midwife to suspect that a postpartum woman is developing a complication?

A. Fatigue and irritability B. Perineal discomfort and pink discharge C. Pulse rate of 60 beats/minute D. Swollen, tender, hot area on the breast

Q62) When implementing care for a postpartum woman who gave birth just a few hours ago, the midwife carefully monitors the woman for which possible complications?

A. Deep venous thrombosis B. Postpartum psychosis C. Uterine infection D. Postpartum hemorrhage

Q63) Which of the following findings would limit the use of Methergine for a postpartum woman with excessive bleeding?

A. Mild abdominal cramping B. Tender, inflamed breast C. Pulse rate of 68 beats per minute D. Blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg

Q64) Which of the following is hormonal method of contraception?

A. Intra Uterine Device (IUD) B. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) C. Cervical Diaphragm D. Coitus interruptus

Q65) The combined oral contraceptive pill prevents pregnancy primarily by:

A. Suppressing ovulation B. Destroying sperm C. Blocking the Fallopian tubes D. Increasing cervical mucus production

Q66) One of the following contraceptive methods is NOT recommended for lactated mother?

A. Combined Oral Contraceptive pills B. Progestin-only contraception pills C. Condoms D. Implanon Nxt (etonogestrel implant)

Q67) Which of the following contraceptive methods is considered an irreversible method?

A. Intrauterine device (IUD) B. Tubal ligation C. Combined oral contraceptives D. Contraceptive implant

Q68) What is the most effective reversible contraceptive method?

A. Condoms B. Implants (Implanon Nxt) C. Lactation Amenorrhea method D. Tubal ligation

Q69) A 42-year old married woman, she smokes 14 to 20 cigarette per day, with history of palpitation and occasional increase of blood pressure, and want to use Combined Oral Contraceptive pills (COCP) as family planning methods. What is the best response by the midwife?

A. It is safe to be used in your case, and there is nothing prevents you from taking it B. You can use this method but you will need continuous monitoring and follow up with physician C. It is recommended to be used in your case, same as other methods D. It is contraindicated to be used by you, and we should discuss the use of other methods

Q70) A woman decides to use contraceptive implant (Implanon Nxt). She is asking about the duration of this method before it need to be removed or replaced. What is the best response by the midwife? Contraceptive implant needs to be removed or replaced after:

A. 6 months. B. 3 years C. 8 years D. 12 years

Q71) Which of the following is a contraindication for breastfeeding?

A. Mothers with Diabetic Mellitus (DM) B. Mother with episiotomy C. Maternal herpes simplex lesion on a breast D. Cesarean Section (C/S)

Q72) Immediately after birth, which of the following Neonate finding is abnormal and should be reported to the physician?

A. Respiration rate 45 breaths per minute B. Vernix caseosa C. Jaundice D. Acrocyanosis

Q73) A midwife prepares to administer vitamin K injection to a newborn infant. The mother asks the midwife why her baby needs the injection. What is the best response by the midwife?

A. Vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria in the intestines B. Vitamin K can prevent neonates from abnormal bleeding C. Your neonate needs vitamin K to develop immunity D. Vitamin K will protect your neonate from having jaundice

Q74) What is the best way to prevent hypothermia in a newborn?

A. Use radiant warmer only B. Bathe the baby immediately C. Dry the newborn thoroughly and initiate skin-to-skin contact D. Keep the baby uncovered for assessment

Q75) What is the primary role of colostrum for newborns?

A. Active immunity B. Source of water C. Nutritional D. Passive immunity

Q76) A newborn has a strong cry and is actively moving his blue extremities when stimulated. Vital signs are Pulse rate 140 beats/min, Respiratory rate 48 breaths/min. What is his APGAR score?

A. 9 B. 6 C. 5 D. 10

Q77) What does exclusive breastfeeding mean?

A. Feeding some breast milk along with other liquids or foods B. Feeding only breast milk, with no other liquids or solids C. Feeding breast milk, but supplemented with formula milk at night D. Alternative use of breast feeding and formula milk

Q78) Which statement best explains the main role of surfactant in the neonate?

A. Assists with ciliary body maturation in the upper airways B. Helps the lungs remain expanded after the initiation of breathing C. Promotes clearing mucus from the respiratory tract D. Helps maintain a rhythmic breathing pattern

Q79) Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. In which muscle site should the midwife administer the injection?

A. Deltoid B. Vastus lateralis C. Triceps D. Biceps

Q80) A 5-day-old full-term newborn is brought to the pediatric clinic for a routine check-up. He was born via spontaneous vaginal delivery at 39 weeks gestation with a birth weight of 3.4 kg. The mother reports exclusive breastfeeding. The baby feeds every 2–3 hours and has 5–6 wet diapers per day. On examination, the baby appears alert and well-hydrated. Based on this assessment, his expected weight is approximately:

A. 3.2Kg B. 3.6 Kg C. 3.8 Kg D. 2.7 Kg

Q81) Which of the following is NOT a component of well-woman screening test?

A. Assess reproductive health B. check presence of chronic diseases C. Assess bone health D. Check eligibility for financial benefits

Q82) What is the purpose of Papanicolaou smear?

A. It predicts whether ovarian cancer is present B. It helps to date the pregnancy C. It detects if uterine cancer is present D. It detect precancerous or cancerous changes in the cervix

Q83) What is the purpose of the breast self-examination?

A. To protect women from breast cancer B. To differentiate between types of breast cancer C. To help enlarge breasts and prepare them for breast feeding D. Early detection of breast abnormalities

Q84) According to most guidelines, how often screening mammogram should be done for a 53-year-old woman?

A. Every 6 months B. Every 1 year C. Every 2 years D. Every 6 weeks

Q85) A woman asks about breast self-examination. The midwife should advise:

A. Perform weekly during menstruation B. Perform monthly, a few days after menstruation ends C. Perform only when she notices a lump D. Perform daily before menstruation

Q86) What preventive measures can be instituted to decrease congenital anomalies in children born for women with preexisting Diabetes Mellitus (DM)?

A. Routine prenatal care B. Control of Blood glucose before and during pregnancy C. Taking prophylactic antibiotics during pregnancy D. Increasing caloric intake before pregnancy

Q87) During preconception counseling, which lifestyle modification is most important for a woman who smokes 10 cigarettes daily?

A. Reduce cigarette use to 5 per day B. Stop smoking completely before pregnancy C. Switch to electronic cigarettes D. Increase exercise to balance the risk

Q88) Why is the benefit of preconception care?

A. To reduce the need for cesarean section birth B. To avoid exposure to environmental hazards before and during pregnancy C. To ensure postnatal visits start immediately after pregnancy D. To decide on the baby’s sex before pregnancy

Q89) During the preconception period, which of the following vitamins is recommended?

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B2 C. Folic Acid D. Ascorbic Acid

Q90) Which of the following is a key component of preconception care for women of reproductive age?

A. Recommending high-dose vitamin A for improved fertility B. Avoiding any discussion of mental health to reduce stress C. Initiating folic acid supplement to prevent neural tube defects D. Delaying all vaccinations until after pregnancy confirmation

Q91) Which of the following activities would best promote professionalism for midwives?

A. Attending regular interdisciplinary healthcare workshops B. Wearing a standardized uniform during clinical practice C. Using social media to share personal experiences with clients D. Engaging in continuous professional development and certification

Q92) A woman requests that her birth plan be respected, including refusal of routine episiotomy. The midwife supports her choice. Which ethical principle is being supported?

A. Nonmaleficence B. Autonomy C. Veracity D. Accountability

Q93) Which action best promotes trust in the midwife-client relationship?

A. Making decisions quickly without involving the client B. Promising outcomes that cannot be guaranteed C. Providing honest, accurate, and timely information D. Minimizing discussions to reduce client anxiety

Q94) During postpartum care, a woman asks the midwife to share personal problems unrelated to health. What is the most professional response?

A. Share personal stories to build trust B. Ignore the woman’s request C. Gently redirect the conversation to focus on the client’s health needs D. Accept the invitation as part of therapeutic care

Q95) The midwife calls the physician because the prescribed medication dosage is higher than the standard dose. The midwife is unable to reach the physician, and the medication is due to be administered. What is the most appropriate action for the midwife to take?

A. Administer the prescribed dose as written to avoid delays in treatment B. Withhold the medication entirely until the physician can be reached C. Check department protocols and contact available senior midwife for advice D. Reduce the dose to the standard level without consulting anyone, assuming it was a prescribing error

Q96) As a healthcare professional performing high-quality CPR on an unresponsive adult with no pulse, which action is most critical to optimize outcomes?

A. Delivering rescue breaths at a ratio of 30:10 compressions-to-ventilations B. Ensuring chest compressions are at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep and at 100–120/min C. Pausing compressions every 2 minutes to check for a pulse D. Administering IV epinephrine within 1 minute of arrest

Q97) Which nursing intervention is most critical when managing an adult patient with pneumonia?

A. Encouraging bed rest and limiting fluid intake to reduce secretions B. Administering prescribed antibiotics immediately and monitoring for adverse effects C. Teaching the patient to suppress coughing to prevent fatigue D. Providing high-flow oxygen at 6 L/min to all patients regardless of SpO₂

Q98) Which of the may increase the risk for heart disease in women?

A. Having the first menstrual period at 12 to 14 years old B. History of preeclampsia and gestational diabetes C. Low cholesterol and Triglycerides level D. Normal range of estrogen level

Q99) An adult client develops shortness of breath and wheezing after exposure to dust. What should be the midwife’s priority intervention?

A. Encourage the client to drink fluids B. Administer prescribed bronchodilator C. Provide high-protein food D. Start chest physiotherapy

Q100) Which of the following women would have the LEAST risk to develop iron-deficiency anemia?

A. A 25-year-old with heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) B. A 30-year-old strict vegetarian who avoids iron-fortified foods C. A 40-year-old with a history of gastric bypass surgery D. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman taking a balanced diet with iron-rich foods

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